Prove That 1 is Equal to 2 in Four Different Methods

prove 1 equal to 2 Let us prove that 1 is equal to 2. Is it possible? Can 1=2 ? Yes, possible theoretically. This is called Mathematical Fallacy. Here is the proof that 1 equals 2. So, What is Fallacy? It’s a statement or an argument based on false or invalid inference. In other words, it can described as certain kind of mistakes in calculation, derivation or proof that are often exhibited, collected, as illustrations of the concept of mathematical fallacy. These maths tricks can be sometimes very interesting and entertaining. In the below equations, we will assume that a=b for our calculation to prove that one is equal to 2.

1 one equal two

Solution 2: To Prove 1=2 Using Addition and Subtraction method

2 one equal to two

Solution 3: To Prove 1=2 Using Multiplication and Substitution method

3 maths tricks

Solution 4: To Prove 1=2 Using Subtraction, Multiplication and Substitution method

4 maths fallacy

Solution 5: To Prove 1=0.5
This is a bonus calculation to prove one is equal to half.
While discussing the above method with teja, one of my good friend,
He proved half is equal to one.
Using Division method.

5 mathematical fallacy

11 Responses to “Prove That 1 is Equal to 2 in Four Different Methods”

  1. rani

    Oct 15. 2011

    this is ridiculousness u cant divide by zero ::: a-b=0 ::

    Reply to this comment
  2. andy

    Oct 15. 2011

    you can not simplify with 0.if a=b then a-b=0 and therefore 1not equals 2

    Reply to this comment
    • Babaji M P

      Oct 20. 2011

      Wait .. Multiply by 2 on both the sides !!!

      Reply to this comment
      • Shinrya

        Dec 13. 2011

        if 5-5=0, that’s a no brainer. Then you say to multiply by 2 on both sides?? so 0=0? DUH.
        Even 2(a-b)=2(0) wouldn’t work because anything multiplied by 0 is 0.

        Reply to this comment
  3. Dorald

    Jan 05. 2012

    in the first question you cant write (a+b)(a-b) because we dont know if b is positive or negative

    Reply to this comment
    • Blob

      Jan 12. 2012

      It doesn’t matter if b is positive or negative, it will just switch the “+” to “-” and vice versa.
      This makes no difference as (a+b)(a-b)=(a-b)(a+b) by rule of the Commutative (or something like that) Property of Multiplication, which states “a*b=b*a”.

      Reply to this comment
  4. Shahzad

    Jan 10. 2012

    Humm totally insane.. if for once a=b then why being so meany as not to consider a^2=b^2, and why write and treat “a” different than “b” in the solution later.. totally irrational..

    Reply to this comment
  5. Blob

    Jan 12. 2012

    Why is everyone ruining the theory that 1=2?
    Another theory is that 3/3 doesn’t equal 1.
    0.9999999… does not equal 1. So why do we say it does?

    Reply to this comment
  6. Ashwin

    May 11. 2012

    you cannot cancel 0 if it is on LHS and RHS…..

    (a-b) and (a2 -ab) are equal to 0 in the above equations, hence they cannot be cancelled out……..

    hence the above 5 proofs are utter nonsense………

    Reply to this comment
  7. Mark Respicio

    Jan 27. 2013

    What did you mean by subtitute? (Im just studying an elementary algebra) that why i dont know … ^_^

    Reply to this comment

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